Hi every body, I don't understand the answer to this simple question: Suppose X,Y,Z are independent random variables show that X/Y and Y/Z are negatively correlated. I think that their correlation is zero. Can you help thanks JME
If Y goes up, X/Y goes down and Y/Z goes up, so it makes sense that they are negatively correlated.
I don't see how this is related to Mathematica but in any event I think you'd need to give more details if for no other reason that the correlation between $X/Y$ and $Y/Z$ might not even exist depending on the distributions being considered. Have you tried any specific examples in Mathematica so that your code could be shared?
