DOWNLOAD-DESKTOP-NOTEBOOK.nb (16.6 MB)
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Just a quick question from an observation: is there a reason Tr[A] ~ d/E ?
Nevermind I found it in your comment on the math.SE post
I can show that expected trace is equal to (1- \frac{1}{d})^d …
So for large d, (1- \frac{1}{d})^d \to \frac{1}{e}.
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It appears like there’s a tiny but non-zero difference between the two. P1 and P2 formulas in https://math.stackexchange.com/a/5017119/998
Verification:
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