The statement says “The probability that two Gaussian integers (a) and (b) are relatively prime is … (math)”
It seems bogus since, as on the integers, there’s not a uniform distribution on the Gaussian Integers. What probability distribution is it talking about?
Seems bogus. Can someone with access to (Pegg; Collins and Johnson 1989; Finch 2003, p. 601) make some sense of that for me? Maybe it could be written better: I did not see a feedback link on the page.
It’s not for research. I am not likely to be very interested in the technical answer, but I seem to be interested in the subject of Gaussian integers.
The statement should be understood in an asymptotic sense, just as its analog for integers (the probability that any two randomly chosen integers are relatively prime is 6/Pi^2).
For an illustration, consider a simpler question, what is the probability that a randomly chosen integer is divisible by 5? Among the numbers {1, 2, 3, …, n}, there are Floor[n/5] multiples of 5, so the probability to choose one at random is Floor[n/5]/n. The limit of that probability as n goes to Infinity is 1/5.
I don’t have a link to the full Collins paper, but here is a preview. Also, see this paper for another proof.
The following experiment generates 10^5 pairs of Gaussian integers and compares the empirical probability to the theoretical value: