I have a few questions about Wolfram's theory for fundamental physics that I would like to clarify...

I. First, as I understand it, and please correct me if I'm wrong, is that similar observers to us will most likely perceive at least the same "general laws" (or most fundamental laws) of physics and mathematics. But for vastly different observers compared to us, couldn't they be able to perceive vastly different general laws?

II. Recently, Stephen Wolfram wrote an interesting article about his proposed relationship between maths and physics (https://writings.stephenwolfram.com/2022/03/the-physicalization-of-metamathematics-and-its-implications-for-the-foundations-of-mathematics/#some-historical-and-philosophical-background).

There, Wolfram talks about the physicalization of mathematics and adopts some sort of platonic position saying that mathematics does really exist in some sense or another because mathematics and all the relations between abstract concepts would exist in the ruliad (more information in the article).

This reminded me of Tegmark's thesis of the "Mathematical Universe Hypothesis" (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_universe_hypothesis) where all mathematical structures would exist as separated universes. (There's even a comment in that article asking what is the relation between Wolfram's and Tegmark's ideas, but nobody replied).

Therefore, basically my question is: Since Wolfram says that mathematical concepts and structures would exist in the ruliad, and the rulial space is what makes reality (and every possibility is realized by it), couldn't we say that all the universes proposed by Tegmark would exist in some way according to Wolfram's ideas? Couldn't all logically possible worlds exist in some way according to this?