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Causal invariance and rule reversal

I am wondering, if one reverses a rule in a causally invariant Wolfram model (i.e. changes it from A->B to B->A), whether the model remains causally invariant. Does anyone know an answer to the question?

POSTED BY: Pavlo Bulanchuk
2 Replies

Ok, yes, very good. If we have at least two rules, then the reverse rules do not have to be causally invariant. I also came up with a single rule example: Consider the rule AB->AA. It is causally invariant for all starting states (can prove). If we start from ABA, we end with AAA in a single step. If we reverse the rule, then AAA can go into ABA or AAB.

I suspect, if we start from a graph (as opposed to a string), we can construct something very similar, although it seems more difficult to prove

POSTED BY: Pavlo Bulanchuk
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