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Why is the derivative of arcsec(x) different on Wolfram?

Posted 11 years ago

The derivative of arcsec(x) is 1/(x(rad(x^2-1)) but when I searched for the derivative on Wolfram, the answer I receive is 1/((x^2)(rad(1-(1/x^2))). Why is this? Is there a restriction not stated?

POSTED BY: ivette perez
3 Replies
POSTED BY: Michael Rogers
Posted 3 years ago
POSTED BY: Steve Roth

Hello Ivette,

you can try the following:

(* Mathematica: *)
deriv = D[ArcSec[x], x];  
(* your definition: *)
someDef = 1/(x (Sqrt[x^2 - 1]));  
(* are they equivalent? *)              
eq = FullSimplify[deriv == someDef]  

which gives for "eq":

enter image description here

From this one can see that both expressions are the same only if x > 0 or - more general - if x is an element of the positive half-plane. "Proof":

Refine[eq, Re[x] > 0]   (* output: True *)

Henrik

EDIT:

Since the ArcSec has the form ((antisymmetric function) + Pi/2), its derivative must be symmetric. This is the case only in the result of Mathematica.

POSTED BY: Henrik Schachner
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